From: John W Burgeson (jwburgeson@juno.com)
Date: Sat Jul 12 2003 - 11:02:33 EDT
George wrote, in part: " I think there are basically 3 ways one
can argue that Paul's statements in Rom.1:26-27 do not condemn as sinful
all homosexual
activity.
A) Paul was just wrong & there's nothing at all wrong with such
activity. I
don't hear anyone on the list saying this.
B) Paul's statements refer to manifestly wicked people & not to decent
ones.
C) Paul is speaking here about various types of promiscuous
homosexuality & not
committed, loving, 1-1 homosexual relationships between adults, in part
because he (&
people in his culture in general ) were not aware that some people, apart
from any
choice they made, had homosexual orientations."
As usual, you are helping me sharpen my focus.
Before I respond, let me ask another question.
I assume Paul is speaking of non-Jews in the passages in question.
Gentiles. Was he speaking of
a. every Gentile,
b. a selected set of Gentiles, or
c. Gentiles as a group?
Or is this even a rational question?
John Burgeson (Burgy)
www.burgy.50megs.com
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