From: George Murphy (gmurphy@raex.com)
Date: Sat Jul 12 2003 - 19:55:21 EDT
John W Burgeson wrote:
>
> George wrote, in part: " I think there are basically 3 ways one
> can argue that Paul's statements in Rom.1:26-27 do not condemn as sinful
> all homosexual
> activity.
> A) Paul was just wrong & there's nothing at all wrong with such
> activity. I
> don't hear anyone on the list saying this.
> B) Paul's statements refer to manifestly wicked people & not to decent
> ones.
> C) Paul is speaking here about various types of promiscuous
> homosexuality & not
> committed, loving, 1-1 homosexual relationships between adults, in part
> because he (&
> people in his culture in general ) were not aware that some people, apart
> from any
> choice they made, had homosexual orientations."
>
> As usual, you are helping me sharpen my focus.
>
> Before I respond, let me ask another question.
>
> I assume Paul is speaking of non-Jews in the passages in question.
> Gentiles. Was he speaking of
> a. every Gentile,
> b. a selected set of Gentiles, or
> c. Gentiles as a group?
>
> Or is this even a rational question?
Romans 1:18 - 3:20 speaks of sin as a general problem that afflicts all people,
Gentiles and Jews. While 1:18 can be seen as a introductory statement that includes
all, 1:19-32 seems (though this is not said explicitly) to refer to Gentiles. & I think
to all Gentiles, though not every Gentiles is guilty of every sin he lists. But the
distinction between Gentiles and Jews has to be seen together with the fact that the
ancestors of Israel started out as pagan idolaters like those described here - cf.
Joshua 24:2.
Shalom,
George
George L. Murphy
gmurphy@raex.com
http://web.raex.com/~gmurphy/
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