On Sat, 20 Jan 2001 22:41:03 EST PHSEELY@aol.com writes:
> Vernon wrote:
>[both mostly cut]
> <<Paul, as yet you have failed to comment on my reading of Rev.13:18
> - a
> verse which, (a) offers wisdom, and (b) dare not be ignored. ETC>>
>
> I do not have the background to speak to this.
>
> Paul
>
Why should reference to one number in scripture be a justification for
all numerology? This is especially a problem since expositors are sharply
divided on whether this was a covert reference to a person in the
author's time (presented cryptically to avoid retaliation) or a prophetic
reference to the end times. Additionally, there are various ways in which
the 666 has been worked out. I suspect that, should I wish to waste the
time doing it, I could find some passage in which either Greek or Hebrew
numerals (especially with the help of changed word order) gave that
total. Would that be the inspired interpretation of the numerals? I take
it to be rather an irrelevant coincidence. There are more important
matters to pursue, like Paul's word studies which make a hash of Vernon's
exegesis and eisegesis.
Dave
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