> ... and (what seems to me) to be the obvious implication: If, by
> means of analysis of the Y chromosome, all men can be shown to have
> descended from one man who lived long ago (perhaps 190,000 years ago),
> then Jesus, were his Y chromosome analyzed, would also appear to have
> descended from that one man--assuming, as Christians must, that he
> was fully human.
I see no reason to conclude that Jesus would also share this common
Y chromosome, because I see no reason to assume that sharing the
190,000 year lineage of this chromosome is a requirement for Jesus
to be fully human.
You have begged the question.
--Dave