Re: A question for TE's

Russ Maatman (rmaatman@dordt.edu)
Fri, 24 Nov 1995 22:15:24 -0600 (CST)

To Denis Lamoureux and the rest of the group:

Maybe I'm going to sound the same way when I discuss things with my
wife, "Honey, what I meant was...."

Anyway, I don't want to include here most of what has been said in
this thread the last few days. For those who want to see more of the
thread, but have already deleted, I'll forward privately.

So: Denis, you argue about my motive for bringing up the Y chromosome
matter and (what seems to me) to be the obvious implication: If, by
means of analysis of the Y chromosome, all men can be shown to have
descended from one man who lived long ago (perhaps 190,000 years ago),
then Jesus, were his Y chromosome analyzed, would also appear to have
descended from that one man--assuming, as Christians must, that he
was fully human. But Christians must believe that he did *not* descend
from another man; they must believe in the virgin birth. So he only
appears to have descended from another man. Thus we have one case in
which similarity of genetic material cannot link a man to an early
male. If God did this once, he could have done it another time, namely,
when he created Adam and Eve.

How does my motive invalidate the argument? Again, this argument does
not prove Adam and Eve were not related to animals or "pre-hominids."
But--it seems to me--it removes one of the scientific reasons for claiming
that Adam and Eve had ancestors.

In Christ,

Russ

-- 

e-mail: rmaatman@dordt.edu Home address:Russell Maatman 401 Fifth Ave. SE Dordt College Sioux Center, Iowa 51250Sioux Center, Iowa 51250 Home phone: (712) 722-0421