MikeSatterlee@cs.com wrote:
> Hello George,
>
> I'm trying to figure out where you are coming from on this.
>
> You wrote: It seems very likely that all have a common reference to the event
> of "the 145th year" (167 B.C.), though the gospel writers clearly intend a
> Roman reference as well. Whether or not the writer of Daniel intended any
> other reference is considerably less certain.
>
> You speak of the intent of the gospel writers. By using that phraseology are
> you implying that Jesus himself may not have applied Daniel's words to Rome's
> coming desolation of Jerusalem, and that this application and the words
> attributed to Christ by them may have been a creation of the gospel writers?
I am not implying anything but am attempting to speak with appropriate
precision. OTOH, there is nothing implausible about Jesus using the an image
from the Book of Daniel to speak about
a future Roman destruction of Jesrualem. OTOH the fact that the
gospel writers -
as if often the case - all give different versions of the speech
shows that they
were not presenting a precise report of his words. That _some_ of the words
attributed to Jesus in the gospels were creations of the gospel
writers is quite
clear. I should add that such redactional material is no less canonical or
authoritative that "the genuine words of the historical Jesus."
>
> You speak of the intention of the writer of Daniel. By using that phraseology
> are you implying that the writer of Daniel may have been someone other than
> Daniel,
As earlier posts on this thread have indicated, it's extremely unlikely
that the entire Book of Daniel was written by a Jew of the 6th century B.C.
> and that this writer and the gospel writers may have disagreed about
> how the prophecies contained in the book of Daniel were meant to be
> understood?
"Disagree" is not a good way of phrasing the matter. The
gospel writers,
probably a couple of hundred years after the composition of Daniel,
were writing
in a different situation and used the words and images of Daniel to speak about
that situation. This is hardly something unique within the Bible. Matthew,
e.g., used Hosea 11:1, which for that 8th century prophet referred to
the Exodus
of Israel from Egypt, to refer to Jesus' sojourn in Egypt.
Shalom,
George
George L. Murphy
http://web.raex.com/~gmurphy/
"The Science-Theology Interface"
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