Hello George,
I'm trying to figure out where you are coming from on this.
You wrote: It seems very likely that all have a common reference to the event
of "the 145th year" (167 B.C.), though the gospel writers clearly intend a
Roman reference as well. Whether or not the writer of Daniel intended any
other reference is considerably less certain.
You speak of the intent of the gospel writers. By using that phraseology are
you implying that Jesus himself may not have applied Daniel's words to Rome's
coming desolation of Jerusalem, and that this application and the words
attributed to Christ by them may have been a creation of the gospel writers?
You speak of the intention of the writer of Daniel. By using that phraseology
are you implying that the writer of Daniel may have been someone other than
Daniel, and that this writer and the gospel writers may have disagreed about
how the prophecies contained in the book of Daniel were meant to be
understood?
Thanks,
Mike
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