Keith observes: "In the case of lots, God's sovereign control over all
events even random ones is assumed. To me, this provides a direct counter
to the claim that an appeal to chance or random processes is in conflict
with God's providential control. In the casting of lots, God's action is
explicity assumed for just such processes."
I agree, of course. The questions(not all, of course) are, however, (1)is
this something we should see as normative for our day? (2)If it was
operative in the time of Acts 1, why is it not operative today? (3) If it is
operative today, why do we not use it? (4) Did God at one time control the
casting of lots (at least some of the time) and stop doing that after the
time of Acts 1?
Questions are easier to formulate than answers, of course. My own view is
that there is no reason, logical or scriptural, to assume God's control over
the casting of lots was any different 2000 years ago than it is today. I
know -- that does not even begin to answer the questions.
JB
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