Adam vs. 'adam

From: MikeSatterlee@cs.com
Date: Tue Apr 23 2002 - 23:51:33 EDT

  • Next message: MikeSatterlee@cs.com: "a follow-up / men before Adam"

    Dick Fischer wrote: An early Adam works for Glenn, a late Adam works for me,
    and
    along comes Mike who prefers two Adams over one.

    I responded: I believe there was only one biblical man who was named "Adam."
    His creation by God is clearly described in Genesis chapter two. I simply
    believe that Genesis 1:26-30, which does not mention the man "Adam," is
    describing God's creation of the human race prior to His creation of "Adam."
    Such an understanding hardly amounts to believing in "two Adams."
     
    Dick then wrote: Whether you choose to translate 'adam as "Adam" or "man," I
    can assure it is the same 'adam throughout Genesis. In other words, 'adam in
    Genesis 1:27 is nameless in your opinion?
      
    That, of course, is what I mean. As you know, the Hebrew word for man, 'adam,
    is used in a generic way to refer to the entire human race several times in
    Genesis. That being the case, would it be either fair or accurate of me to
    tell people that you believe there was more than one Adam, with a capital A?
    You know it would not be. I took that comment as a cheap shot. But since I
    like you, I'll forget about it, this time. Just don't let it happen again or
    I'll have to change my plans to order copies of your book for all 5,000
    members my church. : )

    Mike



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