Re: [asa] A question on morals (OT and NT)

Bernie,

Forgive me for chiming in. I have been resisting thus far.

In all seriousness, are you serious?

Do you mean to say that you really have no idea how this kind of
situation--the differences between the testaments--is to be addressed?
Is this ACTUALLY a theological problem for you (which is hard for me
to imagine), or are you more being the contrarian here?

Pete Enns

On Nov 2, 2009, at 11:35 AM, Dehler, Bernie wrote:

> Since the OT says “eye for eye” but Jesus says in the NT NOT to do
> “eye for eye,” would it be immoral (a sin, “missing the mark”) for a
> Christian to insist on “eye for eye” justice since it is contrary to
> Jesus’ teaching? If yes, then is it also immoral for a Jew to
> insist on “eye for eye’’ justice as God told them (for a Jew, who
> rejects the NT but accepts the OT)? If no, then does that mean God
> has different morals for different people?
>
> Remember- ‘eye for eye’ comes from the Bible (OT) and is from God.
>
> This is related to the thread of the existence of absolute morals
> being an evidence for the existence of God, the giver of morals.
> One of my Christian friends says this is the best evidence, he
> thinks, for the existence of God (his favorite).
>

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Received on Mon Nov 2 12:03:46 2009