[asa] A question on morals (OT and NT)

Since the OT says "eye for eye" but Jesus says in the NT NOT to do "eye for eye," would it be immoral (a sin, "missing the mark") for a Christian to insist on "eye for eye" justice since it is contrary to Jesus' teaching? If yes, then is it also immoral for a Jew to insist on "eye for eye'' justice as God told them (for a Jew, who rejects the NT but accepts the OT)? If no, then does that mean God has different morals for different people?

Remember- 'eye for eye' comes from the Bible (OT) and is from God.

This is related to the thread of the existence of absolute morals being an evidence for the existence of God, the giver of morals. One of my Christian friends says this is the best evidence, he thinks, for the existence of God (his favorite).

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Received on Mon Nov 2 11:35:46 2009