Jack tells us of a lady who wrote,
> And in the passage above, Jesus taught about the moral issue of marriage by
> connecting it with the fact of the creation of man and woman as Genesis
> says!
When this example of Jesus' faith in Scripture is used, I tell the person it
is true that Jesus referred to Genesis 2:24 as morally authoritative (Matt
19:4,5), but he contrasted it ("BUT from the beginning it was NOT so.") with the
law given by God through Moses in Deut 24:1-4 (Matt 19:7). He accepted Gen
2:24 as authoritative, but rejected Deut 24:1-4 because it was a concession to
man's "hardness of heart." So, Jesus did not accept every verse of Scripture as
being authoritative---even in the realm of morals. How then can a follower of
Jesus be sure that every verse is authoritative in the realm of science?
The teaching of Jesus in Matt 19:3-8 logically implies that the inspiration
of Scripture does not guarantee complete inerrancy for every verse. An inspired
verse may contain a concession to the merely human concepts of the times.
You can either follow Jesus or you can follow the doctrine of the absolute
inerrancy of Scripture, but you cannot follow both.
Paul
Received on Fri Dec 19 00:06:21 2003
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