From: richard@biblewheel.com
Date: Thu Jul 24 2003 - 13:20:23 EDT
Hi Sondra, In post http://www.calvin.edu/archive/asa/200307/0547.html you wrote
>But what a representation of that verse "the two shall become one" in the
>forming of offspring, the mingling of two persons (in every sense) to become
>a totally new, unique and seperate being. <sigh>
I answered that in this post http://www.calvin.edu/archive/asa/200307/0528.html. I quote:
>Going back to the origin of sex in Genesis 2 we read:
>Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto
>his wife: and they shall be one flesh.
>Procreation is prominent here only because of its *absence* - unless you
>want the "one flesh" to mean the child that results from the union, but that
>can't be correct because the Bible says that the two become "one flesh"
>after sex, whether or not a child is produced (cf. 1 Cor 6.16).
Elaborating, we read I Cor 6.16, which states:
What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
It seems clear that Scripture presents heterosexual intercourse as identitical to becoming one flesh, regardless of whether a child results or not.
But this doesn't mean that God didn't intend a beautiful and illustrative double entendre, so characteristic of His excellent Word.
Richard Amiel McGough.
Discover the sevenfold symmetric perfection of the Holy Bible at http://www.BibleWheel.com
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