From: Gary Collins (gwcollins@algol.co.uk)
Date: Mon Jul 14 2003 - 03:59:13 EDT
On Sun, 13 Jul 2003 05:20:01 -0400, asa-digest wrote:
>Date: Sat, 12 Jul 2003 09:02:33 -0600
>From: John W Burgeson <jwburgeson@juno.com>
>Subject: Re: Sin?
>
[....]
>
>I assume Paul is speaking of non-Jews in the passages in question.
>Gentiles. Was he speaking of
>a. every Gentile,
>b. a selected set of Gentiles, or
>c. Gentiles as a group?
>
>Or is this even a rational question?
>
I've been trying not to get drawn into this one.
But I'd like to suggest here that (a) is likely to be
correct, as Paul goes on later to compare the Jews:
"What shall we say then? Are we any better? Not at all!
Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin."
Also I would venture to suggest that Paul, as a Pharisee,
would have been well acquainted with the Pentateuch,
and would likely have had its prohibitions in mind when
taking his stance against homosexuality; e.g. "Do not lie
with a man as one lies with a woman. That is detestable."
And so IMO he is condemning the homosexual act outright
and not just a particular circumstance.
Just my thoughts.
/Gary
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Mon Jul 14 2003 - 04:10:22 EDT