Re: Whom do we worship?

From: Dick Fischer (dickfischer@genesisproclaimed.org)
Date: Wed Nov 20 2002 - 12:12:25 EST

  • Next message: Glenn Morton: "RE: Dembski and Caesar cyphers"

    George Murphy wrote:

    > > Our concept of the Godhead has no parallel that I know of. And even if the
    > > Accadians had a similar belief, I don't know how they would express that
    > > with rudimentary writing skills. I'm not sure that we Christians all
    > > understand how God can be in three persons either.
    > >
    > > But all the other cultures are not the Accadian culture. They appear to be
    > > the historic equivalent of the Adamic race which history books
    > > ignore. Since Hebrew derived from the Accadian language, and the Accadians
    > > wrote a flood account, and worshipped three gods from the beginning until
    > > the Sumerians corrupted them, it certainly is not a reach to posit that the
    > > Semitic race derived from the Accadians, and that they may have had a
    > > primitive knowledge of the spiritual realm as we believe it exists.
    > >
    > > To a primitive culture, the idea of three gods could be a preamble to
    > > accepting a multitude of gods when another culture is so pervasive as were
    > > the Sumerians to the Accadians. Certainly beginning with Abraham,
    > > monotheism is in vogue. But did we Christians learn of three Gods from the
    > > NT, or did we re-learn it? If God is in three persons, why would God (the
    > > father) have kept that a secret from His people - if the Accadians and
    > > Adamites are one and the same?
    >
    > Christians never did learn of "three Gods" - the doctrine of the
    > Trinity isn't
    >tritheism. & there is nothing in the OT, read on its own terms, that
    >states a 3-fold
    >character of God. On one wall of my study is a little reproduction of
    >Rubelev's icon of
    >the Trinity - Abraham's three visitors in Genesis 18! But again, that
    >interpretation
    >comes from reading the OT account in light of the NT.
    > Your final question is equivalent to "Why did God wait until ~4
    > B.C. to become
    >incarnate"?" I don't know.

    Nor do any of us. What I am suggesting, though, is the possibility that
    Christ may have been known in spirit form as Ea before His incarnation at
    Bethlehem.

    Dick Fischer - Genesis Proclaimed Association
    "Finding Harmony in Bible, Science, and History"
    www.genesisproclaimed.org



    This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Wed Nov 20 2002 - 21:26:47 EST