Re: Noahic Covenant

From: MikeSatterlee@cs.com
Date: Sun Jun 23 2002 - 19:02:28 EDT

  • Next message: MikeSatterlee@cs.com: "Re: Noahic Covenant"

    Hello Vernon,

    Thanks for your reply.

    You wrote: a straight reading of the Flood narrative, the ensuing Noahic
    covenant, and the relevant NT passages, demand that this must have been a
    "global" event.

    I have studied all aspects of this subject matter in great depth, including
    those which you just mentioned, and have reached a different conclusion.

    You wrote: You choose to disbelieve the account offered by the only
    eyewitnesses to
      this cataclysm ...

    No, I do not. If an eyewitness to a fire that destroyed a large building
    tells me that before finding his way out of the building that "smoke was
    everywhere," should I believe that our entire planet was then covered with
    smoke? Or, since science tells me such a thing would not have possibly
    resulted from one building burning, should I conclude that this "eyewitness"
    must have been referring to "everywhere" in a limited sense?

    You wrote: the logical absurdity of God requiring Noah to build a large
    sea-going vessel to escape the ravages of a "local flood" (which was yet some
    100 years away) is hardly a solid foundation on which to build a convincing
    argument.

    I see no problem with any of this in a local flood scenario. Maybe Noah was
    instructed to build an ark big enough to hold every person in the land that
    was about to be flooded. An ark which would have room enough for all those
    who might repent but didn't. We know that "God does not desire any to be
    destroyed but desires all to attain to repentance." How could Noah be telling
    a land full of people to repent and get on the ark if that ark had no room
    for them? God's plan of salvation today has room for everyone on earth, does
    it not? Should we believe that God's plan of salvation in Noah's day did not?
    The numerical dimensions of the ark may have also been meant to convey a
    symbolic significance which we do not as yet understand. Other factors I can
    think of may have also made it well worth while for Noah to build an ark of
    the size he did, even though the flood did not cover our entire planet.

    You wrote: "And, behold, I, even I, do bring a flood of waters upon the earth
    to destroy all flesh, wherein is the breath of life, from under heaven; and
    everything that is in the earth shall die." (Gen.6:17). Now "shemayim" has
    the unambiguous meaning "heaven" or "sky". How, therefore, can "...destroy
    all flesh from under heaven..." mean anything less than a globally universal
    operation?

    The apostle Paul told the Colossians that, at the time of his writing, the
    good news of Jesus Christ had been "proclaimed to every creature under
    heaven." (Col. 1:23) Are we to believe that, by using phraseology very
    similar to that used in the Genesis flood account, Paul was including in his
    statement the people who then lived in North America, South America, China
    and Australia? I could cite other biblical examples where apparently "global"
    language was used to refer to non-global events.

    You wrote: Rainbows are seen everywhere - not just in Mesopotamia. So it
    would appear, wouldn't you agree, that "earth" in the context of Gen.9:14
    certainly has global connotations in respect of the covenant?

    No, I would not. God's covenant was with Noah and with his descendants to
    never again destroy the land which He had just destroyed. The promise did not
    refer to other lands. When Noah's descendants moved away from the land which
    had been destroyed by the flood of Noah's day, and when they saw rainbows in
    those other lands, the rainbows they then saw would remind them of the same
    promise. God's promise to never again destroy the land of Noah with a flood.
    A local flood does not create a conflict here in any way.

    You wrote: "And I will remember my covenant, which is between me and you
    (Noah) and every living creature of all flesh; and the waters shall no more
    become a flood to destroy all flesh." (Gen.9:15). Observe here that there is
    no reference to "erets" - and thus no associated problem of interpretation.

    Does the word "erets" have to appear in every single verse and sentence? It
    appears in both the previous verse (14) and the following verse (16). If God
    was in the Genesis flood account using the word "erets" to refer to the
    "land" of Noah, then in verse 16 God was referring to, "all the living
    creatures of every kind in the land" of Noah. Again, there is no problem here
    for a local flood understanding.

    Vernon, Noah's flood was not global. This fact has been firmly established in
    more ways than I can possibly here begin to mention. For a discussion of this
    subject matter see Problems with a Global Flood at http:
    //www.talkorigins.org/faqs/faq-noahs-ark.html . I strongly encourage you to
    reconsider your position. For I believe that when Christians now tell people
    that the Bible clearly teaches that the flood of Noah's day was global, a
    teaching which conflicts with all serious scientific evidence, instead of
    helping to bring people to Christ they drive them away from Him. They do this
    by making Christianity look very foolish and the Bible appear to be no more
    trust worthy than a book of fairy tales.

    Mike



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