>I would be interested to know how a gene can be more invariant than the
protein it
>codes for. Less invariant I could understand as being due to the
redundancy of the
>genetic code: more than one triplet can result in a given amino acid at a
given
>position in the protein sequence. But I'm having trouble working out how
it can be
>more invariant.
If only two bases are different in the DNA, and these result in two amino
acid changes in the protein, then the DNA is more invariant since there are
three possible locations for variations in the DNA for each variation in
the protein. If that is the case, then what Steve says is correct.
Art
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