Numerology in Genesis

James Anderson (jad@ccir.ed.ac.uk)
Fri, 28 Aug 1998 12:53:40 +0100

On 28 Aug 98, at 11:08, Vernon Jenkins wrote:

[cut]

> One final point: evolutionists and others have yet to come to
> terms with and accomodate the coordinated numerical geometries that
> the Creator has incorporated into the Hebrew of Gen.1:1. Clearly,
> they are intended to serve some serious purpose and we would be
> wise to prayerfully consider what that might be.

Vernon, I have one obvious question. Assuming for the sake of
argument that "coordinated numerical geometries" exist in Gen 1:1, on
what basis do you conclude [a] that they were "incorporated" by "the
Creator" and [b] that "clearly" He "intended [them] to serve some
serious purpose"?

If your reply is along the lines of the low statistical probability
that such "numerical geometries" could be drawn from the Hebrew text,
I would have to say that the probability of *those* "numerical
geometries" is indeed small, but that the probability of *any*
"numerical geometries" is considerably higher. In fact, it's amazing
what one can dig up from "equidistant letter spacing" and other such
techniques, e.g. see http://cs.anu.edu.au/~bdm/dilugim/moby.html.

More crucially, however, it would still be a fantastic non sequitur
to conclude from such a remarkable fact that [a] God intended it and
[b] God intended to communicate X in doing so, without some
supplementary justification to that end. I have read some of the
material on your web pages, but I find that your methods appear quite
arbitrary and lack any objective validation. For example:

"Fact 18: To correctly mirror the order of the words in the
English translation of Gen.1:1 it is necessary that we transpose
Hebrew words 2 and 3. Its seven characteristic values would then
appear thus: 913, 86, 203, 401, 395, 407, 296. On this basis -
but still retaining the main divisions noted earlier - the verse
is found to divide regularly into three sections..."

[from http://www.compulink.co.uk/~indexer/miracla2.htm]

Now, *why* must we "correctly mirror the order of the words in the
English translation"? Is there anything more to this than linguistic
chauvinism? :)

I'm afraid that to this ignorant eye, your views appear to be a old
error (gnosticism) in a new hat. Is this message from God clearly
communicated to all, or only to those "in the know"?

I'm truly interested to know your reasoning in this matter.

Regards,
James