>Why would this rule out "a recent origin of Adam"? If God took Adam
>from a pool of anatomically modern hominids between (say) 10,000 -
>50,000 years ago, would this not be consistent with him having the
>genetic history of those hominids and their primate ancestors?
Because at the rate mutations occur, there has not been time to generate such
diversity by mutation.
By the way, I will ask this again. Is there any fact which would disprove the
2-Adam theory? If you don't answer I would presume that nothing could
disprove it.
glenn
Foundation,Fall and Flood
http://members.gnn.com/GRMorton/dmd.htm