>So: Denis, you argue about my motive for bringing up the Y chromosome
>matter and (what seems to me) to be the obvious implication: If, by
>means of analysis of the Y chromosome, all men can be shown to have
>descended from one man who lived long ago (perhaps 190,000 years ago),
>then Jesus, were his Y chromosome analyzed, would also appear to have
>descended from that one man--assuming, as Christians must, that he
>was fully human. But Christians must believe that he did *not* descend
>from another man; they must believe in the virgin birth. So he only
>appears to have descended from another man. Thus we have one case in
>which similarity of genetic material cannot link a man to an early
>male. If God did this once, he could have done it another time, namely,
>when he created Adam and Eve.
>
Question: is having a Y-chromosone that indicates he was descended from
this one man 190K years ago a necessary condition for being fully human?
I'm not so sure. Suppose Jesus' chromosonal structure was identical to
Adam's?
What makes a person "fully human"? His chromosones? His behavior? ...?
Bill Hamilton | Vehicle Systems Research
GM R&D Center | Warren, MI 48090-9055
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