RE: Part Three: Mathematics and Physics from Genesis to Revelation

From: Stephen J. Krogh (panterragroup@mindspring.com)
Date: Fri Feb 09 2001 - 11:19:20 EST

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    > -----Original Message-----
    > From: Moorad Alexanian
    > Sent: Friday, February 09, 2001 8:53 AM
    >
    >
    > I have not followed the religious aspect of your posts but it seems to me
    > that to prove that 1+1=2 one must define all the terms in that
    > equation and
    > then prove the equality. It seems to me that one can take 1+1=2 as the
    > definition of what 2 means. Moorad

    But only in our "fallen" logic does 1+1=2. How can we really "know" what the
    true answer is, in our fallen state. (Arm waving) it could be 42. This is
    sounding familiar, isn't it?

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