Re: Lamarckian language

Bill Hamilton (hamilton@predator.cs.gmr.com)
Mon, 11 Oct 1999 09:42:34 -0400

At 12:18 AM 10/9/99 EDT, PHSEELY@aol.com wrote:

>Question: What sources do you know of for objectively estimating the time
>needed for one language to change into two languages? Also, does language
>change into two languages always involve separation of population groups
into
>geographically separated areas?
>
I would expect the development of language to depend rather heavily on
cultural contacts. Spain and the Spanish language were heavily influenced
by the Muslims who invaded and occupied much of the country during the
Middle Ages. Italy was invaded by Muslims, but was also influenced by
invaders from the North. And the two languages are different. England was
influenced by the Romans, the Scandinavian Vikings, the Saxons, and the
French-speaking Normans -- and you can see what a hodgepodge our language is
:-).
Bill Hamilton
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William E. Hamilton, Jr., Ph.D.
Staff Research Engineer
Electrical and Controls Integration MC 480-106-390
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