RE: [asa] A question on morals (OT and NT)

Bill-

I just read Exodus 22. What exactly are you referring to? And how does it shed any light on the Scripture that I quoted and asked about, in context? What a cryptic response you gave.

...Bernie

-----Original Message-----
From: Bill Powers [mailto:wjp@swcp.com]
Sent: Tuesday, November 03, 2009 6:41 PM
To: Dehler, Bernie
Cc: asa@calvin.edu
Subject: RE: [asa] A question on morals (OT and NT)

Bernie:

I can't tell whether you are doing this on purpose.

Read Exodus 22

bill

On Tue, 3 Nov 2009,
Dehler, Bernie wrote:

> So given the verse below, suppose an Israelite, in the time of Moses, gets mad at his brother and hits him in the mouth, causing three teeth to be lost. In that case, the judge should order that the aggressor is held down while he also has three teeth removed? Is that the way to understand this?
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> And if so, do we have the right to evaluate whether this is the best moral thing to do, or are we not to judge God? (I think the preacher doesn't dare 'judge' God or His commands, but the philosopher is trained to judge all things, so the answer from a Christian, whether he can judge this moral command or not, depends on if he is trained as a philosopher or not.)
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> If we can judge this command to be the best moral command, who would defend it? And could it be defended on any rationalistic basis, or is it just defended by "God said it."
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> And I'm also wondering why the re-direction from Jesus couldn't have been implemented at this time... why couldn't Moses have taught what Jesus did?:
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> Matthew 5
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> 38"You have heard that it was said, 'Eye for eye, and tooth for tooth.' 39But I tell you, Do not resist an evil person. If someone strikes you on the right cheek, turn to him the other also.
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> And also, does anyone even think Jesus' advice is actually any good? Literally turn the other cheek if attacked? Do not resist an evil person? (I feel like the opposite is better and smart: Yes, Resist an evil person!!!) Seems to me most Christians don't believe it, and say it is analogy or something... but doesn't it appear Jesus is speaking literally?
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> So it seems to be that both rules are extremes, and wrong. What is the right thing? Probably what modern law and most people say/do, which isn't either of these. This makes me think that Christians claim that morals can be found in the Bible, but they really aren't. Just my opinion.
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> If any of my statements or conclusions are wrong, I welcome a thoughtful and respectful reply.
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> ...Bernie
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> ________________________________________
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> From: asa-owner@lists.calvin.edu [mailto:asa-owner@lists.calvin.edu] On Behalf Of Dehler, Bernie
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> Sent: Tuesday, November 03, 2009 1:18 PM
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> Cc: asa@calvin.edu
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> Subject: RE: [asa] A question on morals (OT and NT)
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> Let's look at when God gave this to the Israelites. Here it is:
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> Leviticus 24:19-22 (New International Version)
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> 19 If anyone injures his neighbor, whatever he has done must be done to him: 20 fracture for fracture, eye for eye, tooth for tooth. As he has injured the other, so he is to be injured. 21 Whoever kills an animal must make restitution, but whoever kills a man must be put to death. 22 You are to have the same law for the alien and the native-born. I am the LORD your God.' "
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> Are we in agreement that God gave this command and meant it to be literally followed by the people in the time and place in which he commanded it?:
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> 19 If anyone injures his neighbor, whatever he has done must be done to him: 20 fracture for fracture, eye for eye, tooth for tooth. As he has injured the other, so he is to be injured.
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> (Forget about future application for now, let's see if we all agree on this first step, that God meant it to the people he gave it to for that time, literally. Maybe some people think it was hyperbole, instead?)
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> ...Bernie
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Received on Sat Nov 7 23:27:20 2009