George:
And what would that theological "use" be (viz. Mt 24:37,38)?
Christ intended perhaps to say that just as before the Great
Judgment in Noah's day, the day of separation, so too it will be
at the Last Day, when the sheep are separated from the goats:
People will be going about their business saying, "All is Well"
or acting as if God does not see.
So does it make a difference whether there was a Flood or not?
Does it make a difference whether there will be Last Day or not?
I suppose one could say that there are "Floods" in all our lives,
a time of division, perhaps even death.
Then perhaps we don't need a literal Last Day either.
Or do we preserve the Last Day "theologically" because it is outside
the purview of man's science.
To put it simply, what does it entail that we separate a theological
meaning from a historical one?
I would rather suggest that the Incarnational God shows His
theology in the flesh of history, otherwise we are in danger of "spiritualizing"
God, making Him more an idea for our own convenience and "reason."
bill powers
On Tue, 7 Apr 2009 16:08:17 -0400, "George Murphy" <GMURPHY10@neo.rr.com> wrote:
> Dick -
>
> On the last paragraph: 1st, of course "fabrication" is a heavily loaded
> term. Having noted that, the answer to the question "would that not also
> call into question the theological lessons derived therefrom?" is "No."
> Again I'll cite Jesus' story of the Good Samaritan. There is no reason to
> think that the events Jesus describes actually happened (i.e., they may
> have been a "fabrication" in your terminology) - & more importantly, it
> doesn't make the slightest difference to the theological use Jesus makes
> of the story whether they really happened or not. Other examples could,
> of course, be given.
>
>
> Shalom
> George
> http://home.roadrunner.com/~scitheologyglm
>
> ----- Original Message --
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Received on Tue Apr 7 23:18:52 2009
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