[asa] Pelagianism?

Question: is it Pelagianism to assert that before the Fall, it was possible
for humans not to sin? I always understood Pelagianism to mean that after
the Fall, it is impossible for humans not to sin, but that it is consistent
with an Augustinian notion of original sin to say that Adam did not
necessarily have to have chosen to sin.

I ask because I'm discussing with someone whether pre-existing tendencies
towards selfishness, violence etc. inherited through biological and social
evolution are in themselves "sin." My view is that such pre-existing
tendencies aren't in themselves "sin"; free will is still possible and only
volitional acts in furtherance of such tendencies would be "sin." Only
after the Fall is it inevitable that our volitional acts, absent Grace, will
tend towards choosing to perpetuate selfishness, violence, etc.

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Received on Tue Feb 19 11:39:46 2008