Re: [asa] Gen 2, NASB vs. NIV -- Which came first, animals or man?

Iain,
What you say is true, there are not two past tenses in Hebrew. Some
languages have several. But I have noted that the switch between the two
in translations (cf. day 4 in several versions) in the middle of
continuous narrative is eisegetic. It never would have occurred to the
original readers.
Dave (another one) (ASA)

On Thu, 31 Jan 2008 13:11:59 +0000 "Iain Strachan"
<igd.strachan@gmail.com> writes:
David,

I seem to remember hearing somewhere that there is no difference in the
Hebrew between past tense (formed), and pluperfect tense (had formed).
Hence it would seem that either translation is possible. The context of
Ch 1 seems to indicate that the pluperfect is the preferred translation.

However, I'm sure someone on the list knows more about Hebrew than I do
and will be able to confirm or deny.

Iain

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Received on Thu Jan 31 15:41:56 2008