PvM wrote:
> Perhaps we should gave the signees a bit of grace as well and not
> limit ourselves to these three options?
It seems just two options is, frankly, sufficient. Either they are
ignorant
of the definition of methodological naturalism, or they are not. If
they are
ignorant, then the statement is a product of that ignorant. If they aren't
ignorant, but instead KNOWINGLY gave a false definition of the term
what would YOU conclude? Can you (graciously) come up with a good
reason for them to falsely define methodological naturalism?
Todd
-- ________________________________________________________________________________ Todd K. Pedlar Assistant Professor of Physics Luther College pedlto01@luther.edu _________________________________________________________________________________ To unsubscribe, send a message to majordomo@calvin.edu with "unsubscribe asa" (no quotes) as the body of the message.Received on Fri May 25 22:45:05 2007
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