On Nov 1, 2006, at 9:00 PM, David Opderbeck wrote:
> So there may not necessarily be an objection to pedophilia when it
> passes the moral grammar and the cultural, religious, social etc
> constraints placed upon this
> There's not much I can add to this. Thanks for being honest about
> it. If this is where Hauser and friends lead, count me out.
>
Remind me again how the bible speaks out on these issues? What does
the bible say about pedophilia? My guess? Nothing. So how do we as
Christians oppose pedophilia if there is not necessarily a biblical
objection to this?
To argue that the Bible opposes such because it contradicts your
ethics seems quite meaningless. So why would our innate ethics oppose
such behavior, even though over time there have been various examples
of young children being married based on religious beliefs, etc.? Why
not explore these questions rather than run from them because they
may hit too close to home?
Especially when the Bible may not offer much support one way or the
other to oppose pedophilia either?
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Received on Thu Nov 2 00:53:52 2006
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