On Sun, 7 Mar 2004 11:00:28 -0700 John W Burgeson <jwburgeson@juno.com>
writes:
> >>
> Your interpretation makes me feel so much better. "All have sinned"
> applies only to those living before ca 58. So we're OK.
> Dave>>
>
> Sorry. I have not been able to unpack this. What am I missing?
>
> Burgy
>
Burgy,
I simply apply your principle of interpretation to Romans 3:23 instead of
II Timothy 3:16. If "all scripture" applies only to what was already been
collected in pre-Christian times (and I extend this to include the words
of Christ, written down even before the gospels reached final form), then
a reference to all as sinners must be restricted to those existing up to
the time of writing, about A.D. 58. Living nearly two millennia later, we
are not among the sinners. I merely do not want to apply hermeutical
principles selectively. Of course, if you can demonstrate that one of
these passages is parabolic, poetic, or otherwise not to be understood
literally, I'll be happy to take the special characteristics into account
and revise interpretations.
Dave
Received on Sun Mar 7 14:43:20 2004
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