From: RFaussette@aol.com
Date: Mon Jul 21 2003 - 07:44:01 EDT
In a message dated 7/19/03 7:39:21 AM Eastern Daylight Time, gmurphy@raex.com
writes:
> The law has two basic functions:
> 1) It maintains order in the world (civil use).
> 2) It makes people aware of their sin (theological use).
> Those who are justified in Christ are free from the law (Rom.10:4). But
> Christians
> in this life are still sinners (as well as saints!) & thus always need to
> hear the
> law in its 2d use. They also live in the world with others, including
> non-Christians,
> & for the sake of their neighbors are subject to the law in its 1st use.
>
> I think the question at issue here is whether or not the law has a "3d
> use" as a
> guide for the Christian life. The Reformed tradion has generally said
> "Yes." The
> Lutheran tradition has been somewhat ambiguous about this but I think most
> consistently
> says "No." This does _not_ mean that Christians are not subject to the law
> at all, but
> simply that it functions for them in the 2 ways noted above, & that there is
> no
> distinctively Christian use of the law. To put it another way, apart from
> use #1 the
> law always has a negative function - "the law always accuses."
>
>
>
>
Are people justified in Christ really free from the law? Or is that the law
emanates from the interior temple of the heart rather than the exterior one of
the temple?
The difference between the law in the OT and the NT is that OT law is imposed
from without. NT law is imposed from within.
rich
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