Re: The Tower of Babel - Less Confusing

From: George Murphy (gmurphy@raex.com)
Date: Fri May 16 2003 - 07:32:21 EDT

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    PASAlist@aol.com wrote:
    >
    > In a message dated 05/14/2003 8:31:56 AM Pacific Daylight Time,
    > gbrown@euclid.colorado.edu writes:
    >
    > >
    > > On Mon, 12 May 2003 PASAlist@aol.com wrote:
    > >
    > > > Jesus did not believe biblical inspiration
    > > >guarantees absolute inerrancy (Matt 19:8), and neither should we---if we
    > > are
    > > >his followers.
    > >
    > >
    > > It appears that proponents and opponents of inerrancy often have different
    > > definitions of the term. Using what I assume that the leading proponents
    > > of inerrancy mean by the term, the above quote would suggest that in Matt.
    > > 19:8 Jesus said that Moses didn't have his facts straight. Actually, what
    > > He indicates is that the standards of the Mosaic Law were less strict than
    > > God's standards. There is a difference between pointing out shortcomings
    > > in the Law of Moses and saying that something is inaccurately reported.
    >
    > I think you have understood Matt 19:8 correctly. You have well said, "The
    > standards of the Mosaic law are less strict than God's standards." How this
    > bears on the doctrine of absolute inerrancy (i.e., the Bible is inerrant in
    > its stated facts of history and science just as much as in its teachings
    > about faith and morals) is that this doctrine rests upon an assumption that
    > everything stated in the Bible must be factually true (accurately reported)
    > because it is God's word and God cannot say anything contrary to his nature
    > as truth. This assumption leaves no place for accommodation to the beliefs of
    > the Israelites. What Matt 19:8 shows is that God's inspired word can say
    > something that is accommodated to the beliefs of the Israelites even when
    > those beliefs are contrary to God's absolute standards, knowledge, character.
    > Hence it falsifies the basis upon which absolute inerrancy is standing, and
    > thereby the doctrine itself.

            Mt.19:8 is also claimed by some as proof of the Mosaic authorship of the
    Pentateuch - an issue not the same as "inerrancy" but closely related to it. Those who
    (like myself) don't accept Mosaic authorship in a literal sense would argue that there
    is here accomodation to Jewish traditions.

                                                            Shalom,
                                                            George

    George L. Murphy
    gmurphy@raex.com
    http://web.raex.com/~gmurphy/

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