RE: The Bible: human word of the almighty God.doc

From: Shuan Rose (shuanr@boo.net)
Date: Fri Jun 28 2002 - 16:54:26 EDT

  • Next message: bivalve: "Re: Noahic Covenant"

    -----Original Message-----
    From: asa-owner@lists.calvin.edu [mailto:asa-owner@lists.calvin.edu]On
    Behalf Of bivalve
    Sent: Thursday, June 27, 2002 6:20 PM
    To: asa@calvin.edu
    Subject: RE: The Bible: human word of the almighty God.doc

    >>John does not exactly give an account of the baptism of Jesus; John
    >>the Baptist refers back to it but does not give a full description,
    >>so the omission of mention of the voice there does not seem
    >>significant. The synoptics all mention a voice from heaven. They do
    >>not say who heard it or how, but someone had to hear something for
    >>the event to be recorded. <<

    >S Shuan wrote:
    One interpretation could be that the someone was Jesus, who received
    a private revelation that was later expanded upon in the retelling.
    However, the very fact of varying accounts support the argument that
    the baptism of Jesus (which I believe was a historical event) was not
    come to us unretouched <

    I think we may be talking past each other. Yes, the gospel accounts
    involve theological interpretation (e.g., the questions about how
    much of John 3 is quotation versus commentary). However, the
    declaration that a voice from heaven said something seems to me to
    assert that there was some sort of direct verbal revelation, whether
    it involved sound waves or an internal "hearing" and whatever the
    audience.

    Taken by themselves, the previously quoted comments could allow
    relativism, or they could be an appeal to careful study and
    consideration of the role of the authors and editors. I therefore
    think it is important to note exceptions to the generalizations as
    limits on the range of interpretation that is consistent with the
    text.

    Shuan wrote:
    Agreed.

    >I find the conservative attempts to find a place for Darius the Mede
    >in history quite implausible. No else seems to think Cyrus the Great
    >was ever called Darius the Mede(a strange appellation for a Persian)
    ><

    I find the attempts to find a place for the writing of Daniel in
    Maccabean times quite implausible. No doubt we differ in our
    standards of credibility. As Cyrus was half Median, the appellation
    is not quite so strange as might be thought. After all, one man's
    Mede is another man's Persian.

    Shuan wrote:

            David, you are waving your hands :) You know that there is no evidence
    whatsoever that Cyrus the Great was ever called Darius the Mede, or that
    there was any other Media-Persian king called Darius before Darius I. Saying
    that it could have been so is not evidence. Now I am no expert on Daniel,
    but I do know that the consensus opinion among OT scholars is that Daniel
    was written in Maccabean times. I accept the scholarly consensus there ,
    just as I accept the scholarly consensus among paleontologists that
    trilobites date to more than 300 million years ago and that horseshoe crabs
    have existed largely unchanged for millions of years. I would never seek to
    challenge you in your own area of expertise, David. I think the burden of
    proof is on those nonexperts , however sincere, who want to challenge the
    scholarly consensus on Daniel.

    ,>The word "forger" is an unfortunate choice of words in a context
    >where the writers of this type of literature (apocalyptic) typically
    >took on the guise of an ancient hero.Our ideas about authorship were
    >simply unknown in the ancient world. People should understand that
    >and get past that. "The past is another country. People do things
    >differently there". <

    This is getting into the question of historicity and verifiability of
    Scripture, an argument that has gone around on the list several times
    without sign of resolution. At this point, I will simply note that
    the specific case of Daniel would involve not only invocation of the
    authority of a figure from the past (as seems likely for
    Ecclesiastes), but also fraudulent justification of the authority of
    the book by faking predictive prophecy. The apocalyptic parts of
    Zechariah do not invoke an ancient hero, so I am doubtful about its
    being integral to the literary genre. Invoking a famous source from
    the past (or present) was recognized by the early centuries AD as a
    dishonest way to try to gain authority for one's claims, as in the
    pseudepigraphical gospels, letters, etc. (already becoming an issue
    in the NT), some pagan attacks on Christianity, and some Christian
    responses to these.

    Shuan wrote:
            There is no question that second century Christians, both orthodox and
    heterodox, used this device frequently with no apology. Indeed, as late as
    the sixth century BC, an orthodox Christian mystic wrote a well known
    religious work claiming to be Dionysus the Aeropagate of Acts 17:33.Orthodox
    Christians apparently stopped doing it only because heterodox Christians did
    it so much that it was now longer an effective way to invoke authority.
    Prior to the late second century, nobody thought of this device as
    "fraudulent", however much it would be regarded as such today

          Dr. David Campbell
          Old Seashells
          University of Alabama
          Biodiversity & Systematics
          Dept. Biological Sciences
          Box 870345
          Tuscaloosa, AL 35487 USA
          bivalve@mail.davidson.alumlink.com

    That is Uncle Joe, taken in the masonic regalia of a Grand Exalted
    Periwinkle of the Mystic Order of Whelks-P.G. Wodehouse, Romance at
    Droitgate Spa



    This archive was generated by hypermail 2b29 : Fri Jun 28 2002 - 17:35:20 EDT