Re: Daniel's 70 `weeks' #6 (was How to prove supernaturalism?)

From: Stephen E. Jones (sejones@iinet.net.au)
Date: Tue Dec 05 2000 - 17:39:51 EST

  • Next message: Chris Cogan: "Re: The Meaning of Life, the Universe, and Everything"

    Reflectorites

    I thought I had already sent this, but I cannot see that I had. So
    my posts on this thread have become a bit out of order. My apologies!

    On Mon, 13 Nov 2000 05:39:05 EST, AutismUK@aol.com wrote:

    [...]

    >RW>There are two other possibilities:
    >>1. Jesus was aware of the prophecies and matched his actions to the
    >>prophecies.

    >SJ>This may in fact be true of some prophecies. The New Testament indicates
    >that Jesus grew up like a normal child and that he only gradually became
    >aware of who He was. A legitimate part of this becoming aware of who He
    >was and what was to do, may have been His reading of what the Old Testament
    >prophecies said the Messiah would do.
    >
    >But as Geisler points out above there were some prophecies (like Mic 5:2 and
    >Dan 9:24-27) that were outside the power of Jesus or His followers to
    >fulfill, unless Jesus was who He said He was.

    >PR>Or unless the Gospel authors fashioned the story to fit the prophecy.

    See previous post on this. It is easy for amateur critics like Paul to blithely
    say this, because they never have to work through the details and
    implications of their `the Gospel authors were frauds' theory. My
    understanding is that few (if any) of even the radical critical theologians
    have maintained this. It is just too psychologically absurd that a group of
    Jews would author some of the highest ethical teaching the world has ever
    seen, and then be prepared to die for those teachings, when all along they
    were just frauds who made the whole thing up.

    But in the case of Dan 9:24-27 the gospel authors never even used this
    prophecy! Moreover, it is a prophecy that was beyond the power of Jesus
    or the disciples to manipulate its fulfilment because some of the key events
    were before Jesus was born and after He died (see also below).

    But I am not going to repeat myself and I will start to wind down this
    thread. I plan to do an FAQ of this prophecy to show how it: 1) establishes
    the reality of the supernatural (and hence shows that materialism and
    naturalism are false philosophies); and 2) how it verifies the truth of
    Christianity. Part of this FAQ will examine naturalistic objections like
    Paul's `fraud theory' and show how they are inadequate.

    >RW>2. Out of many claimed messiahs, Jesus was the one widely accepted
    >>because the events of his life happened to roughly fit the prophecies.

    >SJ>Even if Jesus did only "roughly fit the prophecies" this would be
    >sufficient, because there are *hundreds* of them:
    >
    >"Biblical Predictions. Messianic Predictions. There are two broad
    >categories of biblical prophecy: messianic and nonmessianic. Payne
    >(ibid., 665-70) lists 191 prophecies concerning the anticipated
    >Jewish Messiah and Savior. Each was literally fulfilled in the life,
    >death, resurrection, and ascension of Jesus of Nazareth ..." (Geisler
    >N.L., "Baker Encyclopedia of Christian Apologetics," 1999, p.610)

    >PR>Why do people abuse the word "literally" so ? Presumably one of these is
    >Isiah 7:14 !

    Because Jesus did in fact fulfill these prophecies. Although the prophecies
    were sometimes veiled, when Jesus fulfilled them they were clearly seen to
    be fulfilled in Him.

    The Gk. word rendered "fulfill" is pleroo, meaning "to fill" or "to
    complete".

    In the case of Isa 7:14, the prophet foretold that one who would be God-
    with-us would be born of a virgin. The NT claims Jesus was God with us
    and that He was born of a virgin.

    Note that it is possible for a prophecy to have a dual fulfilment. It is
    possible that Isa 7:14 had a limited more immediate fulfilment and a final
    distant fulfilment.

    >SJ>The probability of them all being fulfilled even "roughly" in one person
    >would presumably be *astronomical*:
    >
    >"It is unlikely that all these events would have converged in the life
    >of one man. Mathematicians (Stoner, 108) have calculated the
    >probability of sixteen predictions being fulfilled in one man (e.g.,
    >Jesus) at 1 in 10^45. That forty-eight predictions might meet in one
    >person, the probability is 1 in 10^157. It is almost impossible to
    >conceive of a number that large." (Geisler N.L., 1999, p.613).

    >PR>Somebody with the mathematic knowledge to get a Biology degree

    One doesn't need much "mathematic knowledge to get a Biology degree"!

    PR>should be aware that this is bolloxmath, as beloved of Creationists
    >everywhere.

    One can disagree with the specific number, or the specific methodology,
    but the probability of one person fulfilling a large number of prophecies
    must be astronomical. As I said in a previous post, this is tacitly accepted
    by critics who (like Paul) claim that either: 1) Jesus manipulated his life;
    and/or 2) the gospel writers manipulated their stories, to make it appear
    that Jesus was the Messiah.

    They know that if in fact Jesus *did* fulfill all these prophecies, and then
    went on to be the founder of a world religion, that shrugging it off as a
    series of chance coincidences would not wash.

    I might add that the standard of fulfilment must be that of 1st century Jews,
    not 20th century Gentiles. If the 1st century Jews were expecting a
    prophecy to apply to the Messiah, even if it is only an allusion or a
    figurative fulfilment, and Jesus did in fact fulfill that prophecy, then that
    must count as a fulfilled prophecy.

    However, there are some prophecies that Jesus did fulfill, even by 20th
    century standards. For example Mic 5:2 predicting that the Messiah would
    be born in Bethlehem, and Dan 9:24-27 which, by the most reasonable set
    of assumptions (confirmed by actual Jewish expectation at the time),
    predicts the date of the coming of the Messiah ~ 28AD.

    It is possible to deny these of course, but the denial is less reasonable than
    their acceptance. Of course if one holds the philosophy of absolute anti-
    supernaturalism (i.e. metaphysical naturalism) then one will reject these
    prophecies. But then one's show of reasoning is just a sham-at all times it is
    under the absolute control of that anti-supernaturalist philosophy.

    PR>In the case of the Daniel prophecy, however, it just sounds like post-hoc
    >reinterpretation of the prophecy to fit the alleged facts.

    See above and previously. To summarise, this fails on several grounds:

    1) This can always be said, even if in fact Jesus did fulfill this prophecy in
    Dan 9:24-27;

    2) The NT does not even use this prophecy, so it cannot be argued that
    they wrote the story to fit the prophecy;

    3) Jesus could not manipulate events so He fulfilled this prophecy because
    some of the events were before He was born and after He died.

    >SJ>No. I produced non-Christian (i.e. Jewish and Roman) historical evidence
    >that the Jews were expecting the Messiah at that very time, and the only
    >prophecy there is in the Old Testament that predicts the time of the
    >Messiah is Dan 9:24-27.

    >PR>And it doesn't fit !

    Disagree. At least two of the interpretations fit *perfectly* (i.e. a terminus
    ad quem within a seven year time span that overlaps the 30-33AD time
    span of Jesus public ministry). These are the 360-day year and the Sabbath-
    year cycles, with a terminus ad quo of 445BC, and a terminus ad quem of
    30-31AD and 28-35AD respectively. Even one 365 day year interpretation
    with a terminus ad quo of 457BC fits also, but not as well, with a terminus
    ad quem of 25AD.

    >SJ>See attached paper by physicist-theologian Robert Newman who improves
    >on the 360 day-year calculation by using the Jewish 7-year Sabbath year
    >cycles. This was actually mentioned in his the quote from him I originally
    >posted but I did not then understand its significance.
    >
    >The combination of: 1) a reasonable terminus ad quo and method of
    >calculation;

    >PR>It is nothing of the sort. It is a fiddle, based around factual errors.

    Disagree. There is no "fiddle" nor "factual errors". The terminus ad quo of
    445BC is the only decree to "rebuild" Jerusalem (Neh 2:5) in fulfilment of
    Dan 9:25), and the 7-year sabbath cycles is a religious calendar system in
    the Bible (Ex 23:10-11; Lev 25:3-7, 18-22) that a Jewish scholar has
    confirmed the Jews actually used. Indeed Daniel's "sevens" could literally
    have meant those seven-year Sabbath cycles.

    Note that Paul does not provide any alternative explanation himself. His
    whole argument (if one could call it that) involves unsubstantiated
    assertions.

    Also Paul continues to ignores the fact that, according to the Jewish
    historian Josephus, and the Roman historians Suetonius and Tacitus, the
    Jews were expecting the Messiah around this time, based on a prophecy in
    their Scripture. There is no other prophecy in the OT which predicts the
    date of the Messiah, so this is independent confirming evidence that the
    terminus ad quo and method of calculation were in accord with 1st century
    Jewish interpretation.

    >SJ>2) confirmed by the historical evidence that the Jews were expecting the
    >Messiah at this time;

    >PR>And were afterwards.....

    The point is they were at this time, based on Scriptural prophecy. And after
    Jerusalem was destroyed the hope faded.

    >SJ>and 3) the fact that Jesus came at that very time

    >PR>Well, actually he *left* at that very time.

    If He "left", then he also "came"! The prophecy refers *both* to Messiah's
    coming ("...until the Anointed One, the ruler, comes... -Dan 9:25),and his
    leaving ("After the sixty-two 'sevens,' the Anointed One will be cut off... -
    Dan 9:26).

    The fact is, as I have pointed out, that Jesus began his public ministry after
    28AD and ended it no later than 33AD.

    This fits either the 360-day year theory: 445BC-(69*7-1)*360/365.25 =
    30AD; or Newman's Sabbath year cycle theory (28-35AD). Both theories
    are based on exegetically sound starting points and on calendar bases found
    in the Bible (both OT and NT).

    In addition, another method based on 365-day calendar years, using
    another possible starting date (457BC), comes out to a few years before
    Jesus started His public ministry: 445BC-(69*7-1) = 25AD.

    PR>Rather odd that a prophecy of the
    >coming Messiah should prophecy his death rather than his arrival, isn't it ?

    The prophecy prophesies *both* Messiah's arrival:

            Dan 9:25 "Know and understand this: From the issuing of the
            decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until the Anointed One, the
            ruler, comes, there will be seven 'sevens,' and sixty-two 'sevens.' It
            will be rebuilt with streets and a trench, but in times of trouble."

    and His death:

            Dan 9:26 "After the sixty-two 'sevens,' the Anointed One will be
            cut off and will have nothing. The people of the ruler who will
            come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. The end will come like
            a flood: War will continue until the end, and desolations have been
            decreed."

    It BTW also predicted the destruction of Jerusalem and its temple by a
    Roman prince, Titus Vespasian, which was fulfiled in AD70, only 40 years
    after Jesus was cut off.

    Neither Jesus nor His disciples could have engineered that! And if it hadn't
    happened then Jesus would not have fulfilled this prophecy. But it did, and
    He did!

    >SJ>and founded a world religion

    >PR>It is questionable whether this was Jesus' aim.

    On what basis does Paul say this? Jesus spoke of building "my "church"
    (Mt 16:18). He sent His disciples into "all the world" to preach His gospel
    (Mk 16:15), and that the gospel of His kingdom would be "preached in the
    whole world as a testimony to all nations" (Mt 24:14). Which BTW is a
    2000 year-old prophecy being fulfilled today before Paul's very eyes!

    It is interesting to note Paul's `pick and choose' approach, which is typical
    of the so-called `skeptics'. Their inconsistent methodology (if one can call it
    that) rejects the NT documents as evidence when they say things the
    sceptic doesn't like, but appeals to them as evidence when they appear to
    say things that the sceptic does like.

    But in any event this is a red-herring. The fact is that Jesus *is* the only
    claimed Messiah who *did* found a world religion.

    >SJ>; is *overwhelming* evidence that
    >Jesus is who He said He was - the Messiah!

    >PR>All hail Appollonius !

    I am afraid I don't know what this means.

    [...]

    >PR>It amuses me that you quote a passage which brings up the same objections I
    >made, to things which you think is reasonable. For example, the 360 day year.

    The paper by Newman does not so much object to "the 360 day year" as
    Anderson's overly specific interpretation of it.

    IMHO the "360 day year" interpretation is still possible, but Newman's
    Sabbath-year cycles are probably better.

    PR>Then,

    SJ>"The command instituting the sabbatical year is found in Ex 23:10-11 and
    >Lev 25:3-7, 18-22. The Exodus passage reads: "For six years you are to
    >sow your fields and harvest your crops, but during the seventh year let the
    >l and lie unplowed and unused."

    >One has to wonder whether an open mind really sees this as a statement that
    >prophecies should only use 6 years out of every 7.

    Newman was just using "the usual Jewish inclusive method of counting" of
    these sabbath cycles:

            "Using Wacholder's list of sabbatical years, 28 our calculation is
            very simple. Our starting point, the month Nisan in 445 BC, falls in
            the seven-year cycle 449-442 BC, of which the last year, from
            September 443 to September 442, is the seventh or sabbatical
            year. 29 Using the usual Jewish inclusive method of counting, 449-
            442 is the first "week" of Daniel's prophecy. The second is 442-435
            BC, and so on, down to the transition from BC to AD, where we
            need to remember that 1 BC is immediately followed by AD 1, with
            no year zero in between..." (http://www.ibri.org/09timeofmessiah.htm)

    The reference Newman cites is:

            "Ben Zion Wacholder, `The Calendar of Sabbatical Cycles During
            the Second Temple and the Early Rabbinic Period,' Hebrew Union
            College Annual 44 (1973): 153-196"

    which sounds sufficiently Jewish for me!

    PR>Here's how it works.
    >
    >We think that Jesus was crucified about 32AD.

    No, we *know*, as much as anything we know that is history, that Jesus
    "was crucified about 32AD", in fact most likely 33AD. I have already given
    reasons for this previously.

    PR>We want to convince people of
    >the truth of our belief, partially to internally validate our own belief.

    No. My belief that Jesus was the Messiah was already validated long before
    I heard of this prophecy. This is just the cream on the cake.

    And I don't want to "convince people of the truth of" my "belief". First, my
    "belief" is nothing unless it is *true*. Because my "belief" inextricably
    includes and is based on objective historical facts in the real world, either it
    is true or it is false. There is no in-between. If it is true, then it is true for
    *everybody*, whether they believe it or not.

    Second, I don't want to "convince" but *persuade* people, by rational
    arguments based on the *evidence*. The arguments that Jesus fulfilled OT
    prophecy like Mic 5:2 and Dan 9:24-27 is based on objective historical
    evidence available to all, and has never been refuted, but only rejected on
    naturalistic philosophical grounds. I believe that it is very important that
    people be free to reject this truth in this life, but then they be held
    accountable for that rejection in the next.

    PR>We
    >aren't particularly bothered about how honest we are in doing this.

    It is Paul's *assumption* that Christians are not being "honest". He
    provides no non-circular evidence for his claim. Because Paul takes his
    philosophy of anti-supernaturalism (i.e. naturalism) to be absolutely true, it
    follows to Paul that Christian evidence for the supernatural, like fulfilled
    prophecy, just *cannot* be true and therefore the evidence itself, and those
    who present it, cannot be "honest".

    But in fact Christian supernaturalists *are* being honest. They believe on
    overwhelming evidential grounds that Jesus is the Messiah and therefore
    they expect that there might be a means of reconciling Daniel's prophecy in
    Dan 9:24-27 with Jesus' appearance as Messiah.

    And there expectation has been justified, because there is at least two such
    means of reconciliation that are quite reasonably based on Scripture and are
    confirmed by 1st century Jewish expectations.

    PR>Oh, look, Daniel predicts the coming of the anointed one.

    Correct!

    PR>Lets see 62+7 weeks ; yes , we can make that years.

    It doesn't say "weeks" in the original. It says "sevens":

            Dan 9:24-27 (NIV) "Seventy 'sevens' are decreed ... From the
            issuing of the decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until the
            Anointed One, the ruler, comes, there will be seven 'sevens,' and
            sixty-two 'sevens.' ... After the sixty-two 'sevens,' the Anointed One
            will be cut off ...".

    Interpreting this as seven-year periods is reasonable, as that is the way the
    Jews understood them (since they were expecting the Messiah in the 1st
    century based on this prophecy).

    Even Paul in an earlier post accepted this, so this shows the non-rational
    `spoiling' nature of Paul's argument (if one can call it that). For Paul it
    seems that, *any* negative argument will do, even if he forgot he had
    accepted the point earlier!

    PR>(Rattle of calculator keys). Damn, it doesn't work.

    This is a caricature of how Christian theologians test various alternative
    interpretative theories. As I have pointed out in a previous post, this is
    similar (if not identical) to the hypothetico-deductive way that scientists
    (especially evolutionary biologists) reason, taking something as fact, and
    then working backwards proposing various alternative hypotheses to see
    which one best fits the fact. If Paul wants to reject this way of reasoning,
    he would have to reject much of modern science in general and
    evolutionary biology in particular.

    And since Jesus public ministry was from ~ 30-33AD, and since these
    `sevens' are not stated as exactly 365-day calendar years (there is no
    evidence that the Jews of Daniel's day and even in Jesus' day used
    exclusively a 365-day calendar), it is reasonable for Christians to look at
    alternative ways of calculating these `sevens' to yield a closer fit with the
    time of Jesus' appearing.

    In any event, as I have shown previously, at least three calculations do in
    fact "work", even one that uses straight 365 day years.

    PR>Let's see if we can find a way of making it work.

    Note that Paul admits there *is* " a way of making it work". So what we
    have is at least one combination of terminus ad quo and method of
    calculation, which are in the Bible, which comes out to the time of Jesus.

    And Jesus is the only Messiah who ever founded a world religion.

    So what more evidence does Paul want?

    PR>Oh look, there's this
    >statement miles away that suggests that 6 out of every 7 years can be used.

    No. What is used is *Jewish* Sabbath-year cycles which are in the Bible
    (Ex 23:10-11; Lev 25:3-7, 18-22; 26:32-35) and which a modern *Jewish*
    scholar has documented were in use at the time. In fact there is a clear
    connection between the warning of exile in Lev 26:32-35 if these Sabbath-
    year cycles are not kept and Daniel's meditation in Dan 9:2 on the prophecy
    of Jeremiah (Jer 25:11-12; 29:10) about Judah's 70 year exile in Babylon
    and its ending. This is added confirmation that Newman's interpretation is
    correct.

    Also, Josephus indicates the Jews were expecting the Messiah at about this
    time based on an "ambiguous oracle that was also found in their sacred
    writings...". The only candidate is Dan 9:24-27 and the only combination of
    terminus ad quo and calculation that would yield a result of about this time
    would be either: 1) 445BC or 457BC and straight calendar years; or 2)
    445BC and either 360-day years or Jewish Sabbath cycles.

    To date Paul has completely ignored this crucial point. Yet if his critique is
    to have any merit he needs to have an viable alternative explanation of this.

    PR>And if we
    >couple it with this decree, which actually isn't a decree to rebuild
    >Jerusalem

    It is. In the original of Dan 9:25 the Heb. word rendered "decree" is just
    dabar meaning "word". That is the same word, rendered "words" in Neh
    2:18, where Nehemiah is speaking about the king's approval for him to go
    and rebuild Jerusalem:

            Neh 2:18 (AV) "Then I told them of the hand of my God which
            was good upon me; as also the king's words [Heb. dabar] that he
            had spoken unto me. And they said, Let us rise up and build. So
            they strengthened their hands for this good work."

    In the ancient world, a king's words *were* decrees!

    Permission to rebuild a fortified capital city was not a light thing, because
    they can become centres of attack and defence again. That is why their
    walls are broken down and gates burned in the first place.

    Artaxerxes did not just passively let Nehemiah go-he positively *sent* him
    to rebuild Jerusalem:

            Neh 2:5-6 "and I answered the king, "If it pleases the king and if
            your servant has found favor in his sight, let him send me to the city
            in Judah where my fathers are buried so that I can rebuild it. "Then
            the king, with the queen sitting beside him, asked me, "How long
            will your journey take, and when will you get back?" It pleased the
            king to send me; so I set a time.

    Also, Artaxerxes gave Nehemiah escort troops and official letters of safe
    conduct as well as permission to cut timber from the king's forest:

            Neh 2:7-8 I also said to him, "If it pleases the king, may I have
            letters to the governors of Trans-Euphrates, so that they will
            provide me safe-conduct until I arrive in Judah? And may I have a
            letter to Asaph, keeper of the king's forest, so he will give me
            timber to make beams for the gates of the citadel by the temple and
            for the city wall and for the residence I will occupy?" And because
            the gracious hand of my God was upon me, the king granted my
            requests. So I went to the governors of Trans-Euphrates and gave
            them the king's letters. The king had also sent army officers and
            cavalry with me."

    PR>(but that doesn't matter, the faithful won't bother to look it up)

    I don't know who Paul imagines these "faithful" to be, but Christian
    apologists (e.g. McDowell and Newman) set out their arguments in detail
    so the "faithful" (and anyone else) can make up their own minds based on
    the *evidence*.

    PR>we can present an argument that looks good to the gullible.

    Paul (like other self-styled `skeptics') seems to be living in a stereotypical
    world where he sees himself as the fearless rationalist, unflinchingly staring
    reality in the face, and Christians are all just a bunch of "gullible" fools.

    The funny thing is that in this thread the roles are reversed-in it I am
    making all the evidence-based arguments and Paul is just making
    unsubstantiated assertions!

    >SJ>--------------------------------------------------------------------------
    >"There is enough light to enlighten the elect and enough obscurity to
    >humiliate them. There is enough obscurity to blind the reprobate and
    >enough light to condemn them and deprive them of excuse."
    >(Pascal B., "Pensees," [1670], Krailsheimer A.J., Transl., Penguin: London,
    >Revised edition, 1966, p.73)

    [...]

    >PR>101 Signs that a Christian is losing a debate
    >
    >1] Resorts to threats of hell

    There is nothing about "hell" in this quote. This quote from Pascal is about
    the evidence for God. He is saying there is enough evidence for *support*
    a rational belief in God, but not enough evidence to *compel* such a belief
    for those who don't want to believe. It is this heart-attitude of not wanting
    to believe that unbelievers will be held accountable for.

    Dan 9:24-27 is a classic example of this. The evidence is so strong that
    Jesus is the Messiah, but there is just enough obscurity to give unbelievers
    a loophole to continue in their heart attitude of unbelief.

    PR>2] Accuses everyone else but himself of being closed minded

    The above quote by Pascal does not accuse anyone of "being closed
    minded". It is talking about the *evidence*: 1) being enough to rationally
    support Christian's belief but not enough to allow then to escape mocking
    by unbelievers like Paul; and 2) being not enough for those who don't want
    to believe but enough to deprive them of rational excuse.

    PR>3] Accuses everyone else of intellectual blindness.

    See above. It is not so much "intellectual blindness" but *spiritual*
    blindness:

            1Cor 2:14 (AV) "But the natural man receiveth not the things of
            the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he
            know them, because they are spiritually discerned."

    Mind you, Paul in this very post accuses Christians of being "gullible" and
    dishonest. So he himself is in effect accusing Christians as a whole of
    "intellectual blindness".

    I do not claim that Paul (and other unbelievers) are being dishonest. I
    assume that on an intellectual level they honestly and sincerely believe that
    they are right that Jesus was not the Messiah.

    But if Jesus *is* the Messiah, and Dan 9:24-27 is strong evidence that he
    is, then as Billy Graham used to say, Paul and his fellow unbelievers are
    sincerely *wrong*!

    [...]

    Steve

    --------------------------------------------------------------------------
    "Contemporary religious thinkers often approach the Argument from
    Design with a grim determination that their churches shall not again be
    made to look foolish. Recalling what happened when churchmen opposed
    first Galileo and then Darwin, they insist that religion must be based not on
    science but on faith. Philosophy, they announce, has demonstrated that
    Design Arguments lack all force. I hope to have shown that philosophy has
    demonstrated no such thing. Our universe, which these religious thinkers
    believe to be created by God, does look, greatly though this may dismay
    them, very much as if created by God." (Leslie J., "Universes", [1989],
    Routledge: London, 1996, reprint, p.22)
    Stephen E. Jones | Ph. +61 8 9448 7439 | http://www.iinet.net.au/~sejones
    --------------------------------------------------------------------------



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