I will grant that Gen 18:25 is a universal usage of kol eretz. I will not
grant that Genesis 41:56,57 is a limited usage. Kol eretz is also used in
Genesis 2:11 as "all the land of havilah', 2:13 all the land of Ethiopia,
Genesis 19:28, 'all the land of the plain'
My point is that you can only associate kol eretz with the entire planet in
a disputed case by means of assumption. The phrase can be used either way.
So you should acknowledge that kol eretz can be used in a limited sense
and it can be used in a global sense. To claim that the only correct usage
is global goes beyond the observed usage of the phrase.
>In addressing the problems mentioned about the famine, I agree with your
>definition because of the context. 'All the countries' refers to
>localities, not the 'whole earth'. Its possible God meant the 'whole
>earth', but not probable. To use a NT reference, Luke 2:1 mentions "all
>the world should be taxed" but its understood that Luke meant only those
>under Roman jurisdiction, not the Olmecs of Mexico or the Mound Builders of
>North America.
So if all the world in the NT can be used locally and I have shown you that
all the land can be used locally in the OT, why must it, with out any
doubt, be global in usage in Genesis 6-9? I see no evidence here just
assumption.
glenn
Adam, Apes and Anthropology
Foundation, Fall and Flood
& lots of creation/evolution information
http://www.isource.net/~grmorton/dmd.htm