>My question is this: Why do _these_ miracles not also violate
>the functional integrity priciple? Surely God could have
>so orchestrated the initial creation that these "miracles" merely
>arose as a matter of course. Why do they receive special treatment
>--or do they?
>
Considering that Rev. 13:8 says that Christ was the lamb slain from the
creation of the world, I would suggest that the miracles very well might have
been put into the universe at the very beginning.
glenn
Foundation,Fall and Flood
http://members.gnn.com/GRMorton/dmd.htm