Re: Pansies?

From: Dr. Blake Nelson (bnelson301@yahoo.com)
Date: Mon Apr 22 2002 - 20:04:23 EDT

  • Next message: Guy Blanchet: "Re: Oppressive YEC"

    An invective hurled, would, perhaps, make more sense
    if you explained the context in the post of why you
    had stooped to an ad hominem attack.

    --- Jim Eisele <jeisele@starpower.net> wrote:
    > How come a group of grown men/women can't come up
    > with a consensus
    > on Gen 1? How weak and pathetic.
    >
    > Jim (no wonder Genesis Defended had to start our own
    > web site)
    >

    As to the general explanation to your obviously
    rhetorical question, four interrelated reasons:
    language, the absence of an original monography,
    context and interpretation.

    Leaving aside the potential problem of not having the
    original monograph of the Genesis text in question,
    one first has to reconcile differences between extant
    texts in Hebrew and Greek. There is no mathematical
    word for word method of translation, even if you could
    assume the contextual meaning of language was the same
    between languages (which it rarely is). Assuming you
    are a scholar of both of those languages, you also
    have to understand the context in which it was written
    (back to this in a moment). If you are not a scholar
    of those languages, you have to deal with the added
    complication of translation into whatever your native
    language may be (assumedly English). At which point,
    you need to educate yourself enough to distinguish
    among the translations and interpretative approaches
    used in various English translations of Gen. 1.

    Even if you are assured you have a perfect translation
    of the words used (whatever, if anything, that may
    mean), you have to then address the context in which
    those words were written in order to begin to hope to
    approach authorial intent (if one can -- C.S. Lewis
    noted once that no one who wrote such things about his
    intent was ever anywhere near the mark).
    Understanding authorial intent requires one to
    understand not only the author but their cultural
    millieu. One can come up with numerous turns of
    phrase or idioms that mean something different than
    the literal words as written. So, you have to have a
    pretty good sense (ideally a perfect sense) of what
    those are and what they mean.

    Even then, when you have ambiguity in the words or in
    a choice of the meaning, because the literal words and
    the idiom that they may represent have different
    meanings, you have to come up with some additional way
    of interpreting what they mean. Thus armed with your
    hermeneutics, you have to go back to the text. Funny
    thing is, there are all sorts of different
    hermeneutics depending on the rules you use to resolve
    ambiguities.

    Thus, rather than being "pansies", reasonable minds
    may disagree on any of these steps and then reach
    differing conclusions depending on how the ambiguities
    are resolved. Perhaps, you may realize that you have
    at least implicit (if not explicit) hermeneutics (even
    if you don't recognize the word in its technical
    meaning) that differs from someone who disagrees with
    you. The argument then is not so much over the
    particular text (unless you disagree over the
    translation, but I haven't detected that you are a
    scholar of the languages in question or the age and
    pedigree the extant texts), but over the way of
    resolving questions of textual interpretation to begin
    with. Thus, you might gain some insight into what it
    means for a text to mean something by understanding
    the reasons behind different perspectives over
    meaning.

    Regards,

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