Re: man = woman?

Dan Eumurian (cen09460@centuryinter.net)
Fri, 01 Oct 1999 10:17:12 +0000

A simplistic answer would be dual causality. There would not need to be
a contradiction between "direct" creation (ex nihilo) on the one hand
and the use of something previously created on the other hand. If God
works thru his creation as a hand works through a glove, what is to say
he couldn't also work thru a mitten placed over the glove.

I use this idea in my song "Everything He Touches Turns To Love," which
says in part, "So let him cleanse and fill you now; for his hand you be
the glove,/'Cause Everything He Touches Turns To Love."

Enough from the analogy nut. :0)

Dan Eumurian
B. Mus. in Mus. Ed. (Kent State),
M.A. in Theol. St. (Wheaton)
La Crosse, WI

Moorad Alexanian wrote:
>
> Can someone shed some light on these two (differing?) accounts.
>
> "God created man in His own image, in the image of God He created him; male
> and female He created them." Gen. 1:27.
>
> "The LORD God fashioned into a woman the rib which He had taken from the
> man, and brought her to the man. " Gen. 2:22.
>
> Moorad