Re: Did man originally speak a single language?
John P. McKiness (jmckines@blue.weeg.uiowa.edu)
Mon, 2 Nov 1998 14:55:31 -0600
At 08:23 AM 11/2/98 -0500, george Murphy wrote:
>Glenn R. Morton wrote:
>>
>> Hi George:
>>
>> At 01:47 PM 10/31/98 -0500, George Murphy wrote:
..............................
>> > 3) It's interesting that neither Hebrew (mayim) nor Greek
(hydor) has
>> _common_
>> >words for water that fit the "aqua" pattern. Maybe there are rarer words
>> which do.
>>
>> Not all languages have retained this sound, but then one wouldn't expect
>> them to. Gothic german had the sound, modern German doesn't.
>
> Reasonable enough. But if one is to make connections with Gen.11, one would
>need to deal with the fact that Semitic languages don't fit this pattern.
& on your
>parallel post, apparently they don't for "finger" either. (Hebrew 'etsba`,
in which ts
>is really a hard or emphatic s.)
>
>George L. Murphy
>gmurphy@raex.com
>http://web.raex.com/~gmurphy/
>
>
Hmmm, maybe Augustine was right when he concluded that Hebrew was the
original language of man. ;-)
John
****************************************************************************
******
John P. McKiness
jmckines@blue.weeg.uiowa.edu.us
****************************************************************************
******