Re: Did man originally speak a single language?
George Murphy (gmurphy@raex.com)
Mon, 02 Nov 1998 08:23:59 -0500
Glenn R. Morton wrote:
>
> Hi George:
>
> At 01:47 PM 10/31/98 -0500, George Murphy wrote: ..............................
> > 3) It's interesting that neither Hebrew (mayim) nor Greek (hydor) has
> _common_
> >words for water that fit the "aqua" pattern. Maybe there are rarer words
> which do.
>
> Not all languages have retained this sound, but then one wouldn't expect
> them to. Gothic german had the sound, modern German doesn't.
Reasonable enough. But if one is to make connections with Gen.11, one would
need to deal with the fact that Semitic languages don't fit this pattern. & on your
parallel post, apparently they don't for "finger" either. (Hebrew 'etsba`, in which ts
is really a hard or emphatic s.)
George L. Murphy
gmurphy@raex.com
http://web.raex.com/~gmurphy/